AI-generated practice paper in the style of IELTS General Training — original material, not a reproduction of any real exam paper, following the official four-module structure (Listening, Reading, Writing, Speaking). Listening audio is read aloud by your browser's voice, Writing tasks can be scored by AI, and for Speaking you can record yourself and compare with a model answer.
Listening
Part 1
Listen and answer questions 1–10.
Transcript (available after checking)
David: Kia ora, Fernside Kennels, David speaking.
Isla: Hi, I'm going away for a couple of weeks and need somewhere for my dog to stay.
David: No problem, we do boarding. What breed, and how old?
Isla: She's a border collie, four years old, called Bramble.
David: Lovely. Is she good with other dogs? We do shared play sessions unless owners prefer otherwise.
Isla: Yes, she's very friendly, loves other dogs.
David: Great, that works well here. What dates are you after?
Isla: From the 2nd to the 16th of January.
David: That's two weeks exactly. Our rate is 38 dollars a night, so that would be 532 dollars in total.
Isla: That's fine. Does she need to be up to date with vaccinations?
David: Yes, kennel cough, and the standard annual vaccination, both within the last twelve months — could you email proof from your vet?
Isla: I can, yes. Does she need anything else, like flea treatment?
David: Just make sure that's current too, and bring her usual food if she's on a special diet, to avoid an upset tummy.
Isla: She's on a grain-free food, so I'll bring a two-week supply.
David: Perfect. Can I take your surname and a contact number?
Isla: Isla Nakamura. N-A-K-A-M-U-R-A. And my number's 021 664 3390.
David: Thanks, Isla. Drop-off can be any time after 8 am on the 2nd, and pick-up before 6 pm on the 16th.
Isla: That's easy, thank you. Is there a deposit?
David: Yes, 100 dollars, non-refundable, just to secure the dates, and the balance is due on drop-off.
Isla: No problem at all. Thanks so much for your help.
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
1. Dog's name: ______
2. Breed: ______
3. Nightly rate: ______ dollars
4. Total cost for two weeks: ______ dollars
5. Surname: ______
6. Deposit required: ______ dollars
7. Drop-off time on the 2nd: after ______ am
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
8. What must Isla provide proof of?
9. What has Isla been asked to bring?
10. The deposit is
Part 2
Listen and answer questions 11–20.
Transcript (available after checking)
Good morning, everyone, and welcome to Portsmouth Maritime Museum. My name's Freya, and I'll be your guide for the next forty-five minutes. Before we start, a few practical points: the museum is open every day from nine until five, except over the Christmas period, and the last entry is at four fifteen. Photography is welcome everywhere except in the Conservation Lab, where flash can damage some of the older documents. Right, let's begin in the Cargo Hold, on your left, where you can see a full-size replica of a nineteenth-century trading ship, and even walk through part of its hull. From there we'll move up to the Bridge Deck, where visitors are welcome to handle real navigation instruments, including a working compass and an old sextant. Next is the Learning Lab, which is mainly for school groups, but during the holidays anyone can drop in and watch a short film about the history of the harbour, shown every half hour. After that, we pass the Uniform Room, where you can try on replica sailor uniforms and have your photo taken. Toward the end of the visit, there's the Gift Shop, selling postcards, books, and model ships, and next to it the Anchor Café, which does a very good pot of tea if you need to rest your feet. Guided tours like this one run three times a day, first at ten, then at half twelve, and half two, and cost eight dollars for adults, though it's free if you've already bought a family ticket. Group bookings of ten or more should be arranged at least a week in advance through the front desk. Right, if everyone's ready, let's head over to the Cargo Hold.
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11. Guide's name: ______
12. Last entry to the museum: ______
13. No photography allowed in the: ______
What does the guide say about each of the following areas? Choose the correct letter, A-F, for questions 4 to 7.
14. The Cargo Hold
15. The Bridge Deck
16. The Learning Lab
17. The Uniform Room
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
18. The first guided tour of the day starts at
19. A guided tour costs, for an adult,
20. Group bookings of ten or more should be arranged
Part 3
Listen and answer questions 21–30.
Transcript (available after checking)
Grace: Henry, did you finish the pendulum experiment? My results aren't what the textbook says.
Henry: Same here. The period should be about two seconds for a one-metre string, and I got two point three.
Grace: Me too. I suspect the stopwatch. I'm slow at pressing it.
Henry: Your reaction time might be part of it, but it wouldn't be that consistent. What about the string? Mine stretched a little.
Grace: Ours was a thin cotton thread. Did you use fishing line?
Henry: Yes. The technician recommended it because it doesn't stretch.
Grace: Then maybe I'll change to fishing line and repeat.
Henry: Also, how did you measure the length? From the top of the string to the middle of the ball?
Grace: To the bottom of the ball. That's the mistake, isn't it?
Henry: Probably. You should measure to the centre of the ball. That could account for a few percent.
Grace: Right. Then there's the angle. I released the pendulum at forty-five degrees, because it's easier to see.
Henry: That's too wide. The formula is only accurate for small angles, under fifteen degrees or so.
Grace: I didn't realise. So there are three problems: the string, the length and the angle.
Henry: And the timing. Don't time one swing, time twenty and divide.
Grace: I did ten. Twenty would give a better average.
Henry: Exactly. Now, in the report, do you know how to describe the errors?
Grace: I'll list the ones we found, and say how each one changes the result.
Henry: Good, and don't forget to separate random errors from systematic ones. Dr. Adams always asks about that.
Grace: Random are like my reaction time, and systematic are like measuring to the wrong end of the ball.
Henry: You've got it. I'll come to the lab tomorrow at two and repeat mine. Do you want to join?
Grace: I have a seminar, but I'll come at four.
21. What is the problem with the students' results?
22. Why does Henry doubt that reaction time is the only cause?
23. What did Henry use for the string?
24. What was Grace's mistake about measuring length?
25. What is wrong with releasing the pendulum at forty-five degrees?
26. How many swings does Henry suggest timing?
27. When will Grace join Henry in the lab?
How does each source of error affect the results? Choose your answers from the list, A-E: A Random error; B Systematic error; C Extremely serious error; D Instrument breakdown; E Human error only.
28. Reaction time
29. Measuring to the wrong end of the ball
30. Using a stretchy thread
Part 4
Listen and answer questions 31–40.
Transcript (available after checking)
Today we consider a small, unglamorous object most people use without ever thinking about its history: the paperclip. Before bent wire fasteners existed, people used pins, ribbon, or even sealing wax to hold sheets of paper together, none of which were particularly convenient, and pins in particular tended to tear or rust the paper over time. The rise of the paperclip is closely tied to the wider spread of cheap, mass-produced paper and office correspondence in the nineteenth century, since more paperwork naturally created demand for better ways to organise it. Numerous inventors in Europe and America filed patents for wire fasteners in the final decades of the eighteen hundreds, and no single person can be credited as the sole inventor, though a Norwegian inventor named Johan Vaaler is often popularly remembered as the paperclip's creator after patenting a design in 1899. Vaaler's own design, however, was actually rather impractical and never went into significant production, and it looked quite different from the double-oval shape now instantly recognisable worldwide. That familiar shape, known as the Gem paperclip, appears to have emerged gradually through refinement by British manufacturers around the same period, without any single dramatic breakthrough moment or clearly identifiable inventor behind it. During the Second World War, the paperclip briefly became a quiet symbol of resistance in occupied Norway, when wearing one on a lapel was understood locally as a subtle sign of solidarity, since more overt patriotic symbols had been banned by the occupying authorities. Despite over a century of attempts to improve or replace it with plastic clips, coloured pins, or elaborate binding systems, the simple bent-wire Gem design remains by far the most common paperclip in offices worldwide, a rare case of a genuinely early design never being meaningfully surpassed. Museum curators occasionally point to it as a small, quiet example of good design succeeding purely through practical usefulness rather than through clever marketing or promotion.
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
31. Before paperclips, people used pins, ribbon, or even sealing ______.
32. More cheap, mass-produced ______ created demand for better fastening methods.
33. A Norwegian inventor named ______ is often popularly credited with the paperclip.
34. Vaaler patented his design in ______.
35. Vaaler's own design was actually rather ______.
36. The now-familiar double-oval design is called the ______ paperclip.
37. The Gem design was refined by ______ manufacturers around the same period.
38. During the Second World War, wearing a paperclip became a symbol of resistance in occupied ______.
39. Overt patriotic symbols had been ______ by the occupying authorities.
40. Despite attempts to replace it, the ______ design remains most common today.
Reading
Section 1: Notices
You should spend about 20 minutes on Section 1.
NOTICE A — Language Exchange Evening
Join us every second Thursday of the month at the Old Mill Community Hub for our informal language exchange evening, running from 7pm to 9pm. All languages and levels are welcome; simply wear a badge (provided at the door) showing which languages you speak and which you would like to practise. Tea, coffee, and biscuits are provided free of charge, though donations towards hall hire costs are appreciated. There is no need to book in advance, and the event is free to attend. Please note that the hub's lift is currently out of service, so the event will take place on the ground floor only this month, meaning wheelchair access remains unaffected despite the lift issue.
NOTICE B — Free Furniture Giveaway
Moving abroad next month and giving away the following items for free to anyone who can collect them: a double bed frame (no mattress), a small desk, two bookshelves, and a set of kitchen chairs. Everything must go by the 25th, as our removal company arrives that day and cannot take unwanted items. Items are stored in the garage and can be collected any afternoon between 2pm and 6pm; please text ahead to check what remains available, as items are being collected on a first-come, first-served basis and some may already be taken by the time you arrive.
Questions 1–4. Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
1. How often does the language exchange evening take place?
2. By when must the furniture items be collected?
3. What should people do before coming to collect items?
4. How much does it cost to attend the language exchange evening?
Questions 5–7. Do the following statements agree with the information in Notice A? Write TRUE if the statement agrees, FALSE if it contradicts, or NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
5. Advance booking is required to attend.
6. Tea and coffee are provided free of charge.
7. Donations towards hall hire costs are appreciated.
Question 8. Complete the sentence below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Notice A for each answer.
8. Attendees should wear a badge showing which languages they speak and which they want to __________.
Question 9. Answer the question below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Notice A.
9. Why will the event take place on the ground floor only this month?
Questions 10–11. Do the following statements agree with the information in Notice B? Write TRUE if the statement agrees, FALSE if it contradicts, or NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
10. The bed frame comes with a mattress.
11. Items can be collected any morning.
Questions 12–13. Complete the sentence below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Notice B for each answer.
12. Items are being given away on a __________ basis.
13. The furniture can be collected any afternoon between __________.
Question 14. Answer the question below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Notice B.
14. Where are the furniture items stored?
Section 2: Workplace
You should spend about 20 minutes on Section 2.
TEXT A — Annual Leave Policy Update
From the start of the next holiday year, all annual leave requests must be submitted at least two weeks in advance through the online HR system, rather than the previous informal arrangement of asking your manager directly. Requests during the peak summer period, between mid-July and the end of August, should ideally be submitted at least six weeks in advance, as availability is limited and approved on a first-come, first-served basis once departmental minimum staffing levels are considered. Unused annual leave can now be carried over into the following year up to a maximum of five days, an increase from the previous policy of no carry-over at all. Leave requests submitted less than two weeks in advance will only be approved in exceptional circumstances at the manager's discretion.
TEXT B — Staff Training Schedule: Mandatory Modules
All staff must complete three mandatory training modules by the end of this quarter: Data Protection Awareness, Fire Safety, and Equality and Diversity. Each module takes between 30 and 60 minutes and can be completed at your own desk using headphones, as some modules include audio content. Managers will receive automated reminders for any team members who have not completed all three modules two weeks before the deadline. Completion certificates are generated automatically and stored in your personal training record; there is no need to forward these to HR separately. Staff joining the company partway through the quarter will be given a revised, prorated deadline based on their start date.
Questions 15–17. Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
15. How far in advance must annual leave requests normally be submitted?
16. How many mandatory training modules must staff complete?
17. Which module is NOT listed as mandatory?
Questions 18–20. Do the following statements agree with the information in Text A? Write TRUE if the statement agrees, FALSE if it contradicts, or NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
18. Summer leave requests should ideally be submitted at least six weeks in advance.
19. Unused leave could never be carried over under the previous policy.
20. Leave requests submitted less than two weeks in advance can never be approved.
Question 21. Complete the sentence below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Text A for each answer.
21. Unused leave can now be carried over up to a maximum of __________.
Question 22. Answer the question below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Text A.
22. What system must be used to submit leave requests now?
Questions 23–24. Do the following statements agree with the information in Text B? Write TRUE if the statement agrees, FALSE if it contradicts, or NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
23. Staff must forward completion certificates to HR separately.
24. Some modules include audio content.
Questions 25–26. Complete the sentence below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Text B for each answer.
25. Managers receive automated reminders __________ before the deadline.
26. Each mandatory training module takes between 30 and __________.
Question 27. Answer the question below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Text B.
27. What kind of deadline do staff joining partway through the quarter receive?
Section 3: The Growing Popularity of Community Gardens
You should spend about 20 minutes on Section 3.
Community gardens, shared plots of land cultivated collectively by groups of local residents rather than individual private allotment holders, have proliferated considerably across urban areas in many countries over the past two decades, transforming previously vacant or underused land into productive, communally managed green space.
Unlike traditional allotments, where individuals typically manage separate, clearly demarcated plots independently, community gardens generally operate through more collaborative governance structures, with participants collectively deciding what to grow, sharing tools and resources, and often distributing harvested produce among active volunteers rather than assigning ownership of specific plants to specific individuals. This more communal structure appeals particularly to participants seeking social connection alongside gardening itself, rather than those primarily motivated by producing food for their own household exclusively.
Research into community garden participation has identified benefits extending considerably beyond the food produced. Studies consistently document improved social cohesion within neighbourhoods hosting active community gardens, with participants reporting increased familiarity with neighbours and greater neighbourhood attachment compared with residents in otherwise similar areas lacking such shared green spaces. For newly arrived immigrants and refugees in particular, community gardens have proven valuable spaces for social integration, providing accessible common ground and shared purpose that transcends potential language barriers more easily than many other social settings.
Environmental benefits also feature prominently in community garden advocacy, including modest but measurable contributions to urban biodiversity, reduced stormwater runoff compared with paved or barren vacant land, and educational opportunities for children and adults alike to develop practical understanding of food production processes increasingly abstract and unfamiliar within predominantly urbanised, supermarket-dependent societies.
Despite these substantial documented benefits, community gardens face genuine sustainability challenges related to land tenure security. Many gardens occupy vacant land through temporary arrangements with property owners or municipal authorities, arrangements that can be terminated with relatively little notice should the land become desired for alternative development purposes, a persistent vulnerability given the generally higher potential financial return from residential or commercial development compared with continued use as community garden space. Advocates increasingly argue that meaningful long-term investment in community gardens, including formal land protections comparable to those often extended to traditional parks, requires municipal authorities to recognise these spaces as genuine, valuable infrastructure warranting comparable planning protection, rather than merely convenient, temporary uses for otherwise vacant land awaiting eventual redevelopment.
Questions 28–30. Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
28. How do community gardens differ from traditional allotments, according to the passage?
29. What is the main sustainability challenge facing community gardens?
30. What comparison do advocates make regarding land protection?
Questions 31–34. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? Write TRUE if the statement agrees, FALSE if it contradicts, or NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.
31. In community gardens, individuals typically own specific plants exclusively.
32. Research shows improved social cohesion in neighbourhoods with community gardens.
33. Community gardens always have permanent, secure land agreements.
34. Community gardens have proliferated across urban areas over the past two decades.
Question 35. Complete the sentence below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
35. For newly arrived immigrants, community gardens provide accessible common ground and shared __________.
Questions 36–38. Answer the question below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
36. What environmental benefit is mentioned regarding stormwater?
37. What do advocates want municipal authorities to recognise community gardens as?
38. What kind of land do many community gardens occupy?
Questions 39–40. Do the following statements agree with the writer's claims? Write YES if the statement agrees with the writer's claims, NO if it contradicts, or NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks.
39. Community gardens can help children understand food production processes.
40. Development for housing or commerce typically offers higher financial return than continued use as a community garden.
Speaking
Part 1: Introduction and interview
The examiner asks you questions about yourself and familiar topics (4–5 minutes).
Part 1 (Managing your time / Diaries and calendars) — the examiner asks about two familiar topics.
Topic 1: Managing your time
Q1. Do you find it easy to organise your time?
Q2. What do you do to avoid wasting time?
Topic 2: Diaries and calendars
Q3. Do you use a calendar or a diary?
Q4. Have you ever forgotten an important appointment?
Recorded on your device only — play it back and compare with the model answer.
Show sample answer
Model answer:
1. Usually, but not when I'm under pressure. I tend to underestimate how long tasks take, so I often end up finishing things later than I planned.
2. I make a list every morning and put the hardest job first. I also switch off notifications while I'm working, otherwise I get distracted every few minutes.
3. Yes, I use a shared calendar on my phone, so my partner and I can see each other's plans. I also keep a small paper diary for notes and ideas.
4. Unfortunately, yes. Last spring I missed a dentist's appointment because I'd written down the wrong day, and I had to pay a fee, which taught me to double-check.
Part 2: Individual long turn
You have one minute to prepare, then speak for one to two minutes.
Describe an occasion when you celebrated a success.
You should say:
- what the success was
- who you celebrated with
- what you did to celebrate
and explain how you felt on that occasion.
Take one minute to prepare, then present it for one to two minutes.
Recorded on your device only — play it back and compare with the model answer.
Show sample answer
Model answer: I'd like to describe the evening I celebrated passing my driving test, after failing it twice before. I'd been quite embarrassed about the earlier failures, since a few of my friends had passed on their first attempt, so this third try felt especially important to me. As soon as the examiner told me I'd passed, I called my best friend from the test centre car park, practically shouting down the phone, and she immediately said we should go out that same evening. We ended up going to a small Italian restaurant that I'd always wanted to try but had been saving for a special occasion, and two other close friends joined us later once they'd finished work. We ordered far too much food, including a dessert none of us could actually finish, and stayed talking and laughing until the restaurant was almost ready to close. My parents also gave me a small gift afterwards, a set of car accessories, as a way of celebrating with me too. I felt an enormous sense of relief mixed with pride that evening, especially after doubting myself following the previous failed attempts, and it's a night I still think back on whenever I'm facing something that feels difficult or discouraging.
Part 3: Two-way discussion
The examiner asks more abstract questions linked to the Part 2 topic.
Part 3 (urban and rural living) — the examiner asks four related questions.
Q1. What are the main advantages of living in a city compared with the countryside?
Q2. Do you think rural areas are becoming less popular for young people?
Q3. Should governments invest more in developing rural regions?
Q4. How might the balance between urban and rural populations change in the future?
Recorded on your device only — play it back and compare with the model answer.
Show sample answer
Model answer:
1. Cities usually offer more job opportunities, better public transport, and easier access to services like hospitals and universities, though this often comes with higher living costs and more crowding.
2. Yes, largely because job opportunities and social life are concentrated in cities, so many young people move away, leaving rural areas with an ageing population and fewer young families.
3. I think so, particularly in transport links and internet access, since better infrastructure could make it realistic for more people to live and even work remotely from rural areas.
4. With remote working becoming more common, I think some people may start moving back to rural areas for a better quality of life, though cities will probably still dominate overall population growth.
Writing Task 1
You are applying for a new job and need a reference from a former employer. Write a letter to your former manager. In your letter: explain that you are applying for a new job, ask if they would be willing to provide a reference, and remind them of some of your responsibilities and achievements while working for them. Write at least 150 words. You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin your letter 'Dear ...,'
Writing Task 2
Some companies are now offering employees a four-day working week instead of the traditional five-day week. Do you think this is a positive or negative development? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.